A 35-year-old man presents with progressive asymmetric weakness of the right hand over 6 months, affecting grip strength and finger dexterity. Examination reveals atrophy of the first dorsal interosseous muscle, normal reflexes, and no sensory loss. Nerve conduction studies show a 60% reduction in compound muscle action potential (CMAP) amplitude when comparing proximal versus distal stimulation of the right median nerve at a site away from the wrist. MRI of the brachial plexus shows T2 hyperintensity and contrast enhancement of the affected nerve, marked as **A** in the diagram. Anti-GM1 IgM antibodies are positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this patient's condition?
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