A 72-year-old man with CKD stage 3 and on a proton pump inhibitor develops severe pseudomembranous colitis due to *Clostridioides difficile* infection after 10 days of ceftriaxone and levofloxacin. Laboratory studies show WBC 24,000/uL, creatinine 2.8 mg/dL (baseline 1.4), and flexible sigmoidoscopy confirms characteristic yellow-white pseudomembranes. The treatment regimen marked **A** in the diagram is most appropriate for this patient. Which of the following best describes why this regimen is preferred over the alternatives in severe CDI?
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