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    SubjectsMedicineShock Management
    ClinicalMedicine

    Shock Management

    49 MCQs in Medicine for NEET PG

    1 Easy34 Medium14 Hard
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    Sample Questions

    hard

    A 42-year-old woman with acute coronary syndrome complicated by acute anterior wall myocardial infarction undergoes primary percutaneous coronary intervention. Post-PCI angiography shows TIMI 3 flow. However, 2 hours later, she develops hypotension (BP 82/48 mmHg), elevated JVP, clear lung fields on auscultation, and a new holosystolic murmur at the apex. Echocardiography confirms acute mitral regurgitation secondary to papillary muscle rupture. What is the most appropriate immediate next step?

    medium

    A 52-year-old man with acute myocardial infarction presents with hypotension (SBP 85 mmHg), elevated JVP, and clear lung fields. A second patient with septic shock from pneumonia presents with hypotension (SBP 80 mmHg), normal JVP, and pulmonary crackles. Which single feature best distinguishes cardiogenic shock from septic shock?

    medium

    A 38-year-old woman with severe burns (40% TBSA) is in hypovolemic shock with hypotension and oliguria. A 45-year-old man with acute pancreatitis is in distributive shock with hypotension but normal urine output. Which finding best distinguishes hypovolemic shock from distributive (septic/anaphylactic) shock?

    medium

    A 52-year-old man with a 10-year history of diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of fever, cough, and dyspnea. On examination, he is confused, heart rate 118/min, blood pressure 88/54 mmHg, respiratory rate 28/min, and temperature 39.2°C. Skin is warm and flushed. Arterial blood gas shows pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 32 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 14 mEq/L. Lactate is 4.2 mmol/L. Chest X-ray reveals bilateral infiltrates. Blood cultures are pending. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

    hard

    A 68-year-old woman with acute myocardial infarction (anterior wall STEMI) complicated by acute left ventricular dysfunction presents with persistent hypotension (BP 78/52 mmHg), elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP 10 cm H₂O), cool extremities, oliguria (urine output 20 mL/4 hours), and lactate 3.8 mmol/L despite 2 L of normal saline infusion over 2 hours. Echocardiography shows severely reduced ejection fraction (20%), global hypokinesis, and no pericardial effusion. Pulmonary artery catheter shows: cardiac index 1.8 L/min/m², pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) 22 mmHg, and systemic vascular resistance (SVR) 1400 dyne·s·cm⁻⁵. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

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