A 52-year-old Caucasian farmer presents with a 3-year history of migratory polyarthralgia, followed by 18 months of chronic diarrhea, weight loss, and steatorrhea. Duodenal biopsy reveals blunted villi, dilated lacteals, and foamy macrophages in the lamina propria that are PAS-positive and diastase-resistant. PCR confirms Tropheryma whipplei. CSF examination shows no evidence of CNS involvement. The treatment regimen marked **A** in the diagram is initiated. Which of the following best describes why this regimen is the recommended first-line therapy for Whipple disease?
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