36 MCQs in Microbiology for NEET PG
A 42-year-old woman with a history of penicillin anaphylaxis presents with a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) skin abscess requiring systemic antibiotic therapy. Which is the drug of choice?
A 32-year-old woman from Delhi presents with a 5-day history of painful pustules on her forearm following a minor cut. Culture yields Staphylococcus aureus. Which single finding would most reliably distinguish a community-associated MRSA (CA-MRSA) strain from a healthcare-associated MRSA (HA-MRSA) strain in this patient?
Which toxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus acts as a superantigen and is the primary cause of toxic shock syndrome?
All of the following are virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus EXCEPT:
A 32-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of fever, myalgia, and hypotension. She has a diffuse erythematous rash on her trunk and extremities. She had a surgical wound infection 5 days ago from which Staphylococcus aureus was isolated. Which of the following is NOT a recognized mechanism by which this organism causes toxic shock syndrome?
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