A 28-year-old primigravida at 26 weeks gestation presents for routine antenatal care. She has a history of mild asthma diagnosed 5 years ago, previously well-controlled on albuterol as needed. Spirometry today shows an obstructive pattern with FEV1 at 75% of predicted (marked as **B** in the diagram), with FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.68. She reports increased use of albuterol over the past 4 weeks. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
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