1 MCQs in OBG for NEET PG
A 31-year-old woman presents with three first-trimester miscarriages (at 8, 10, and 9 weeks gestation). She is phenotypically normal with no medical comorbidities. Antiphospholipid antibodies and uterine cavity imaging are normal. Karyotyping reveals the abnormality marked **A** in the diagram: 46,XX,t(11;22)(q23;q11.2). Her husband's karyotype is normal (46,XY). Which of the following best explains the mechanism of recurrent pregnancy loss in this carrier?
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