Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

A 28-year-old woman presents with lower abdominal pain, vaginal discharge, and fever for 5 days. On examination, she has cervical motion tenderness and adnexal tenderness bilaterally. Empirical antibiotics have been started. Which investigation is most appropriate to confirm the diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease and assess for complications such as tubo-ovarian abscess?

A 32-year-old woman with a history of multiple episodes of pelvic inflammatory disease presents with chronic pelvic pain and infertility. She is being evaluated for structural sequelae of recurrent PID. Which investigation is most appropriate to assess tubal patency and detect intrauterine adhesions or tubal strictures?

A 32-year-old woman with a history of 2 episodes of pelvic inflammatory disease (treated 18 months and 6 months ago) presents with 2 weeks of mild lower abdominal pain, irregular menses, and infertility for 8 months despite regular unprotected intercourse. On examination, she is afebrile, has mild adnexal tenderness, and no cervical discharge. Pelvic ultrasound shows normal ovaries and uterus with no free fluid. Cervical swabs for gonorrhea and chlamydia PCR are negative. What is the most likely cause of her infertility?

A 28-year-old unmarried woman from Delhi presents to the emergency department with a 5-day history of lower abdominal pain, purulent vaginal discharge, and fever (38.5°C). She reports unprotected intercourse with a new partner 2 weeks ago. On examination, she has cervical motion tenderness, adnexal tenderness bilaterally, and rebound tenderness. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Gram stain of cervical discharge shows gram-negative diplococci. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial antibiotic regimen for this patient?

Regarding the diagnosis and management of pelvic inflammatory disease, all of the following are appropriate EXCEPT: