A 28-year-old woman presents with 6 weeks of amenorrhea, lower abdominal pain, and vaginal spotting. Transvaginal ultrasound shows an empty uterus and the structure marked **A** in the diagram—a dilated, hemorrhagic segment of the fallopian tube. Serum β-hCG is 4200 mIU/mL. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
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