1 MCQs in Ophthalmology for NEET PG
A 38-year-old immunocompetent man presents with sudden floaters, periocular pain, and progressive blurring of vision in the right eye over 7 days. Visual acuity is 6/24. Slit-lamp examination shows granulomatous anterior uveitis with mutton-fat keratic precipitates and intraocular pressure of 28 mmHg. Dilated fundoscopy reveals dense vitritis, occlusive retinal vasculitis with arteriolar sheathing, and confluent peripheral white necrotic retinal patches spreading circumferentially. Aqueous PCR confirms varicella-zoster virus. The management strategy marked **A** in the diagram is most appropriate for this patient. Which of the following BEST describes the rationale for the antiplatelet component of this regimen?
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