1 MCQs in Ophthalmology for NEET PG
A 68-year-old hypertensive man presents with sudden painless blurring of the lower visual field of his right eye. Fundus examination reveals sectoral flame-shaped hemorrhages and cotton wool spots in the superotemporal quadrant, dilated tortuous veins distal to an arteriovenous crossing, and the finding marked **C** in the diagram. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line pharmacological intervention for this patient's vision loss?
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