1 MCQs in Ophthalmology for NEET PG
A 41-year-old man with HIV (CD4 count 24 cells/µL, not on antiretroviral therapy) presents with 2 weeks of floaters, blurred vision, and a painless paracentral scotoma in the right eye. Dilated fundus examination reveals confluent yellow-white areas of full-thickness retinal necrosis along the superior vascular arcade with fluffy granular borders, prominent hemorrhages, and vessel sheathing — the classic "pizza pie" appearance. Mild vitritis is noted. The lesion marked **B** in the diagram is identified. Which of the following is the most appropriate INDUCTION therapy for this sight-non-threatening peripheral disease?
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