1 MCQs in Ophthalmology for NEET PG
A 42-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus (HbA1c 9.2%) presents with sudden painless vision loss and floaters in both eyes. Dilated fundus examination reveals the findings marked as **A** in the diagram — neovascularization of the disc with vitreous hemorrhage. The patient has no prior history of retinal laser treatment. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management for this high-risk proliferative diabetic retinopathy?
Ready to test yourself?
Test your Ophthalmology knowledge with AI-powered MCQs and detailed explanations — no signup required to try.
Sign up free and practice all 1 Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy MCQs with AI-powered explanations tailored to your performance.
Create Free Account