1 MCQs in Pathology for NEET PG
A 28-year-old Indian male with a family history of sudden cardiac death presents with chest pain and dyspnea. Clinical examination reveals arachnodactyly, pectus carinatum, and a positive wrist sign. Echocardiography shows the lesion marked **A** in the diagram — annulo-aortic ectasia with effacement of the sinotubular junction. Which of the following molecular mechanisms BEST explains the pathophysiology of this aortic lesion in Marfan syndrome?
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