A 58-year-old man with 22-year history of type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with progressive proteinuria (5 g/24 h), peripheral edema, hypertension, and rising serum creatinine. Renal biopsy reveals glomeruli with the pathologic findings shown in the diagram. The structure marked **A** shows round, acellular, eosinophilic, PAS-positive nodules at the lobular periphery of the glomerulus, with diffuse glomerular basement membrane thickening and hyaline arteriolosclerosis affecting both afferent and efferent arterioles. Which of the following best describes the PRIMARY PATHOPHYSIOLOGIC MECHANISM underlying the formation of the lesion marked **A**?
Ready to test yourself?
Test your Pathology knowledge with AI-powered MCQs and detailed explanations — no signup required to try.
Sign up free and practice all 1 Diabetic Nephropathy MCQs with AI-powered explanations tailored to your performance.
Create Free Account