1 MCQs in Pathology for NEET PG
A 58-year-old man presents with nephrotic syndrome (proteinuria 12 g/day, serum albumin 2.2 g/dL, edema). Kidney biopsy shows thickened GBM with the structure marked **B** (subepithelial immune deposits) and spike-dome appearance on electron microscopy. Anti-PLA2R antibodies are negative. Which of the following is the MOST important next step in management to prevent a life-threatening complication specific to this disease?
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