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    SubjectsPathologyPituitary Macroadenoma
    Para-clinicalPathology

    Pituitary Macroadenoma

    1 MCQs in Pathology for NEET PG

    1 Medium
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    Sample Questions

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    A 42-year-old woman presents with 8 months of progressive bilateral peripheral vision loss, secondary amenorrhea, galactorrhea, and headaches. Visual field testing confirms bitemporal hemianopia. Serum prolactin is 850 ng/mL. MRI shows a 1.8 cm sellar mass with suprasellar extension. The structure marked **A** in the diagram represents the sellar tumor with suprasellar extension. Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which this lesion produces the patient's visual field defect?

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