A 68-year-old man with newly diagnosed atrial fibrillation presents with acute left upper quadrant pain radiating to the left shoulder and low-grade fever. CT abdomen with IV contrast shows a non-enhancing, wedge-shaped pale lesion at the splenic periphery, with the base along the splenic capsule and apex directed toward the hilum, as marked **A** in the diagram. Which of the following best explains why the infarct marked **A** appears pale rather than hemorrhagic?
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