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    SubjectsPathologySplenic Infarct
    Para-clinicalPathology

    Splenic Infarct

    2 MCQs in Pathology for NEET PG

    2 Medium
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    Sample Questions

    medium

    A 68-year-old man with newly diagnosed atrial fibrillation presents with acute left upper quadrant pain radiating to the left shoulder and low-grade fever. CT abdomen with IV contrast shows a non-enhancing, wedge-shaped pale lesion at the splenic periphery, with the base along the splenic capsule and apex directed toward the hilum, as marked **A** in the diagram. Which of the following best explains why the infarct marked **A** appears pale rather than hemorrhagic?

    medium

    A 58-year-old man with poorly controlled atrial fibrillation and subtherapeutic anticoagulation presents with acute left upper quadrant pain radiating to the left shoulder. CT imaging and subsequent pathology confirm splenic infarction. The resected spleen shows a sharply demarcated, pale yellow-white lesion with its broad base abutting the capsule and apex pointing toward the hilum, as marked **A** in the diagram. Which of the following best describes the pathological process occurring within the structure marked **A**?

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