1 MCQs in Radiology for NEET PG
A 52-year-old man with chronic kidney disease (eGFR 28 mL/min/1.73 m²) and peripheral arterial disease presents with claudication. Digital subtraction angiography (DSA) of the lower limbs is planned. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate intervention to minimize contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) while maintaining diagnostic image quality?
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