A 76-year-old man with atrial fibrillation not on anticoagulation presents with sudden-onset severe periumbilical pain, nausea, vomiting, and bloody diarrhea. Physical examination reveals a soft, non-tender abdomen. Serum lactate is 6.2 mmol/L. CT angiography shows an abrupt filling defect in the superior mesenteric artery (SMA) approximately 3 cm distal to its origin, with downstream small bowel wall thickening, mucosal hypoenhancement, and mesenteric edema. The structure marked **A** in the diagram demonstrates acute mesenteric ischemia from SMA embolism. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
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