Bladder Cancer

A 68-year-old man with a 50 pack-year smoking history presents with persistent gross hematuria and lower abdominal pain for 6 weeks. Cystoscopy shows a large, infiltrative lesion at the bladder dome. Biopsy confirms high-grade urothelial carcinoma. MRI pelvis shows tumor invasion into the perivesical fat and a 2 cm right pelvic lymph node. There is no evidence of distant metastases on staging CT chest/abdomen/pelvis. What is the most appropriate treatment?

A 62-year-old man presents with painless gross hematuria for 3 weeks. He has a 40 pack-year smoking history and works as a chemical factory worker. Cystoscopy reveals a solitary, papillary lesion on the lateral wall of the bladder. Biopsy shows high-grade urothelial carcinoma confined to the lamina propria (stage T1). CT abdomen/pelvis shows no lymph node enlargement or distant metastases. After transurethral resection of bladder tumor (TURBT), what is the most appropriate next step in management?

Which histological type of bladder cancer accounts for approximately 90% of all cases and arises from the urothelium?

According to the TNM staging system, which depth of invasion defines muscle-invasive bladder cancer (MIBC)?