A 58-year-old man with a 3-day history of left lower quadrant pain, fever (38.5°C), and leukocytosis (WBC 14,000/μL) undergoes CT imaging with oral and IV contrast. The scan shows sigmoid wall thickening with pericolonic fat stranding and the finding marked **B** in the diagram. Which of the following management steps is most appropriate for this patient?
Ready to test yourself?
Test your Surgery knowledge with AI-powered MCQs and detailed explanations — no signup required to try.
Sign up free and practice all 1 Diverticulitis with Abscess MCQs with AI-powered explanations tailored to your performance.
Create Free Account