1 MCQs in Surgery for NEET PG
A 58-year-old man presents with acute left lower abdominal pain, fever (38.5°C), and elevated inflammatory markers. CECT abdomen/pelvis shows sigmoid wall thickening with diverticula, pericolic fat stranding, and a rim-enhancing fluid collection measuring 5.2 cm adjacent to the sigmoid colon, marked as **B** in the diagram. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
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