1 MCQs in Surgery for NEET PG
A 68-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with a 4-month history of progressive fatigue, dyspnea on exertion, and pallor. Laboratory investigations reveal hemoglobin 7.8 g/dL with microcytic indices and serum iron studies consistent with iron-deficiency anemia. Colonoscopy reveals the structure marked **A** in the diagram—a polypoidal fungating mass in the cecum with an ulcerated, friable, contact-bleeding surface. Biopsy confirms adenocarcinoma. Which of the following BEST explains why right-sided polypoidal adenocarcinomas like the one marked **A** classically present with occult bleeding and iron-deficiency anemia rather than acute obstruction?
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