3 MCQs in Surgery for NEET PG
A 52-year-old man from rural India presents with a 6-month history of progressive dysphagia to solids, weight loss of 8 kg, and epigastric discomfort. Endoscopy reveals a 4 cm ulcerated lesion in the gastric antrum with surrounding erythema. Biopsy confirms adenocarcinoma. CT staging shows the tumour invading the muscularis propria with 2 regional lymph nodes involved (T3N1M0). The patient is otherwise fit for surgery with no comorbidities. What is the most appropriate surgical management for this patient?
A 58-year-old woman from Delhi undergoes screening mammography and is found to have a 2.5 cm mass in the upper outer quadrant of the left breast with microcalcifications. Core needle biopsy confirms invasive ductal carcinoma, grade 2, ER/PR positive, HER2 negative. Staging CT shows no distant metastasis. Sentinel lymph node biopsy is negative (pN0). The tumour is clinically mobile with no skin involvement or nipple retraction. What is the most appropriate surgical management?
In surgical oncology, which principle best describes the concept of 'R0 resection'?
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