12 MCQs in Medicine for NEET PG
A 58-year-old man with dilated cardiomyopathy and NYHA Class III heart failure is being counselled on disease-modifying pharmacotherapy. Which of the following is NOT a cornerstone agent in the management of systolic heart failure?
A 62-year-old woman with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) presents with pulmonary oedema, elevated JVP, and a BNP of 850 pg/mL. Regarding acute management of ADHF, all of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:
A 58-year-old man from Delhi presents with progressive dyspnea on exertion for 3 months, orthopnea, and bilateral ankle edema. He has a history of hypertension (BP 160/100 mmHg today) and type 2 diabetes. On examination, JVP is elevated at 8 cm, S3 gallop is audible, and fine crackles are heard at both lung bases. Chest X-ray shows cardiomegaly and bilateral pulmonary edema. Echocardiography reveals LVEF 35%, global hypokinesis, and LV end-diastolic dimension 62 mm. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacological intervention?
A 72-year-old woman from Mumbai with a 10-year history of hypertension and diabetes presents with progressive dyspnea, fatigue, and ankle swelling for 6 weeks. On examination: BP 145/92 mmHg, HR 88/min regular, JVP 6 cm, no S3 gallop, lungs clear to auscultation bilaterally. Echocardiography shows LVEF 52%, LV wall thickness 14 mm, LA enlargement, and restrictive mitral inflow pattern (E/A ratio 2.2, E/e' ratio 14). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
In the NYHA functional classification of heart failure, which class is characterized by symptoms occurring at rest or with minimal exertion?
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