12 MCQs in OBG for NEET PG
Regarding routine antenatal investigations in a low-risk singleton pregnancy, all of the following are recommended at the first antenatal visit EXCEPT:
A 28-year-old primigravida at 20 weeks gestation attends her routine antenatal clinic visit. Regarding the investigations and assessments recommended at this gestational age, all of the following are standard EXCEPT:
A 28-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks of gestation presents for her second antenatal visit. She is asymptomatic with an uncomplicated first trimester. Vital signs are normal. On examination, the uterus is palpable just above the symphysis pubis. She asks about the timing and content of her antenatal investigations. Which of the following investigations is NOT recommended at this gestational age according to current Indian guidelines?
A 32-year-old multigravida (G3P2L2) at 24 weeks of gestation attends her third antenatal visit. She has a history of gestational diabetes in her previous pregnancy. On examination, BP is 138/88 mmHg (previously normal). Urine dipstick shows 1+ proteinuria. Fasting blood glucose is 105 mg/dL. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in her management?
At which antenatal visit is the routine oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) or random blood glucose screening recommended in India?
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