A 42-year-old woman from rural Maharashtra presents with postcoital bleeding and vaginal discharge for 3 months. Pap smear shows atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS). HPV testing is positive for HPV-16. Colposcopy with directed biopsy reveals cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 2 (CIN-2). She is counselled regarding treatment options. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate management for CIN-2?
A 38-year-old woman from Tamil Nadu, HPV-16 positive, presents with abnormal cervical cytology (CIN 2). She has completed 2 doses of quadrivalent HPV vaccine 6 months ago. Colposcopy-directed biopsy confirms CIN 2 with negative margins. She declines excisional treatment and requests conservative management. According to current FIGO and Indian guidelines, which of the following is the most appropriate management?
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