Pregnancy-Induced Hypertension

A 32-year-old primigravida at 28 weeks of gestation presents with blood pressure 152/98 mmHg on two occasions 4 hours apart. Urinalysis shows 2+ proteinuria. Which of the following is NOT a recognized feature of preeclampsia?

Regarding the management and pathophysiology of gestational hypertension and preeclampsia, all of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:

A 32-year-old multigravida at 32 weeks gestation is referred from a peripheral clinic with a blood pressure of 152/98 mmHg, mild headache, and 1+ proteinuria on urine dipstick. She has no visual disturbances, epigastric pain, or respiratory symptoms. On examination, reflexes are normal with no clonus. Platelet count is 150,000/μL, serum creatinine is 0.9 mg/dL, and AST is 28 U/L. Fetal heart rate is reassuring. What is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?

A 28-year-old primigravida at 34 weeks gestation presents to the antenatal clinic with a blood pressure of 158/102 mmHg. She reports a frontal headache and right upper quadrant pain for the past 6 hours. On examination, she has brisk reflexes with 2 beats of clonus. Urine dipstick shows 2+ proteinuria. Her platelet count is 95,000/μL, serum creatinine is 1.2 mg/dL, and AST is 68 U/L. What is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?

A 28-year-old primigravida at 34 weeks of gestation presents to the antenatal clinic with a blood pressure of 158/102 mmHg. She reports a 2-week history of persistent headache, epigastric pain, and visual disturbances. On examination, she has brisk reflexes with 3+ patellar reflexes bilaterally. Urine dipstick shows 3+ proteinuria. Platelet count is 95,000/μL, serum creatinine is 1.4 mg/dL, and AST is 78 U/L. What is the most appropriate immediate management?