15 MCQs in Pharmacology for NEET PG
A 38-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) presents with acute lupus nephritis (Class IV). She is started on high-dose intravenous methylprednisolone 1 g daily for 3 days, followed by oral prednisolone 1 mg/kg/day. After 2 weeks of therapy, she develops severe hypokalemia (K⁺ 2.8 mEq/L), hypertension (160/100 mmHg), and hyperglycemia (fasting glucose 280 mg/dL). Which of the following best explains the mechanism underlying these adverse effects?
A 52-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation is prescribed oral prednisolone 40 mg daily for 7 days. He has a past medical history of well-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus (HbA1c 6.8%) and hypertension. After 5 days of prednisolone therapy, his fasting blood glucose rises to 240 mg/dL and his blood pressure increases to 155/95 mmHg. He also reports new-onset insomnia and mood changes. Which of the following best describes the pharmacologic basis for the glucose elevation in this patient?
A 52-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis has been on long-term corticosteroid therapy for 3 years. He now presents with severe bone pain and pathological fracture of the femoral neck. Which is the most common skeletal complication of chronic corticosteroid use?
Regarding the pharmacological properties of corticosteroids, all of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:
A 52-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation is admitted and started on intravenous methylprednisolone 500 mg once daily. After 3 days of therapy, he develops severe hypokalemia (serum K⁺ = 2.8 mEq/L) and hypertension (BP 165/95 mmHg). His blood glucose is 240 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
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