A 14-year-old girl is brought to the orthopedic clinic for routine school screening. On Adam forward bend test, an asymmetric right thoracic rib hump (marked A) is noted. Her neurological examination is normal, and she has no pain. Standing PA spine X-ray shows a Cobb angle of 28° with Risser sign of 1. Which of the following is the most appropriate management at this stage?

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