A 42-year-old woman is admitted to the ICU with acute meningococcal sepsis, purpuric rash, high fever, and altered sensorium. She develops refractory hypotension unresponsive to fluids and vasopressors. Laboratory investigations reveal hyponatremia (128 mEq/L), hyperkalemia (5.8 mEq/L), hypoglycemia (55 mg/dL), and metabolic acidosis. Random serum cortisol is 8 mcg/dL during physiologic stress, and ACTH stimulation test fails to increase cortisol above 18 mcg/dL. Non-contrast CT abdomen shows bilateral adrenal enlargement with high attenuation (50–90 HU) consistent with acute hemorrhage, as marked **A** in the diagram. Which of the following is the PRIMARY pathophysiologic reason why the adrenal glands are uniquely susceptible to hemorrhage in this clinical scenario?