Amenorrhea — Primary and Secondary MCQ — NEET PG Practice Question | NEETPGAI
Amenorrhea — Primary and Secondary
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A 22-year-old woman with a 2-year history of secondary amenorrhea undergoes evaluation. Laboratory investigations reveal elevated prolactin (68 mIU/L), normal TSH, normal LH/FSH ratio, and normal androgen levels. MRI pituitary is normal. Which of the following is NOT a recognized cause of hyperprolactinemia in this patient?
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