A 38-year-old woman from Delhi undergoes routine cervical cancer screening with liquid-based cytology as part of a health camp. Her Pap smear shows CIN-2 (cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 2). HPV testing is positive for HPV-31 (high-risk type). She has no prior abnormal smears and denies smoking. Colposcopy is planned. Which of the following best explains why this patient's lesion has a higher risk of progression to invasive cancer compared to an HPV-negative CIN-2?