A 32-year-old woman presents with progressive neurological decline, ataxia, and oculomotor apraxia. Genetic testing reveals biallelic mutations in the ATM gene (Ataxia Telangiectasia Mutated). MRI brain shows cerebellar atrophy. She is counselled about increased cancer risk. What is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?

See the options, answer & explanation

Sign in free to reveal the answer choices, the correct answer, the detailed explanation, and AI-powered insights for this question.