A 62-year-old Indian man presents with fatigue and left upper quadrant fullness. CBC shows WBC 180,000/μL with left-shifted myeloid series and basophilia. Bone marrow aspirate is hypercellular with M:E ratio 15:1. FISH analysis of bone marrow interphase nuclei is performed, and the result shown in the diagram displays two fusion signals (marked A). Which of the following best explains the pathogenic mechanism of the clonal myeloproliferative neoplasm in this patient?

See the options, answer & explanation

Sign in free to reveal the answer choices, the correct answer, the detailed explanation, and AI-powered insights for this question.

Daily MCQs, study tips, and topper strategies on Telegram.