A 32-year-old man presents with a 4-month history of progressive right wrist pain and swelling. He has no constitutional symptoms. Plain radiographs reveal a lytic lesion in the distal radius extending from the metaphysis into the epiphysis with a soap-bubble appearance. Biopsy confirms multinucleated giant cells with mononuclear stromal cells. He undergoes intralesional curettage with phenol application. Six months later, he develops recurrent pain and imaging shows tumor recurrence. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?