A 32-year-old man presents with a 4-month history of pain and swelling in the proximal tibia. Clinical examination reveals mild warmth and tenderness over the proximal tibia. X-ray shows a lytic lesion in the proximal tibial metaphysis extending into the epiphysis, with a thin sclerotic rim. The lesion measures 4 cm and is well-demarcated. On MRI, there are areas of low signal intensity on T2-weighted images consistent with hemosiderin. The patient is counseled about the risk of recurrence. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?