A 58-year-old Indian male with a 5-year history of primary open-angle glaucoma presents for routine follow-up. Fundoscopy reveals progressive optic disc cupping with a cup-to-disc ratio of 0.75. The structure marked C in the diagram (nasal displacement of vessels) is noted. Which of the following best explains the mechanism behind this finding in chronic glaucoma?

See the options, answer & explanation

Sign in free to reveal the answer choices, the correct answer, the detailed explanation, and AI-powered insights for this question.

Daily MCQs, study tips, and topper strategies on Telegram.