A 28-year-old carpenter presents to the emergency department 6 hours after his finger was caught in a door slam. On examination, there is visible blood collection beneath the nail of the distal phalanx, marked as **A** in the diagram. The patient reports severe pain at the site. X-ray shows no underlying fracture of the distal phalanx tuft. The hematoma occupies approximately 30% of the nail surface, and the nail margins appear intact with no laceration of the nail bed. What is the most appropriate immediate management for the structure marked **A**?