A 35-year-old man with HIV infection (CD4 count 45 cells/μL) presents with progressive visual loss, floaters, and photopsia in the right eye. Fundoscopic examination shows hemorrhagic retinal infiltrates with granular appearance and minimal inflammation. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
See the options, answer & explanation
Sign in free to reveal the answer choices, the correct answer, the detailed explanation, and AI-powered insights for this question.