A 32-year-old multigravida (G3P2) at 39+5 weeks of gestation with a history of one previous vaginal delivery and one prior cesarean section (classical incision for placenta previa) presents for induction of labor due to gestational hypertension. Her cervix is favorable (Bishop score 8), and the fetal heart rate is reassuring. She asks about the safety of vaginal delivery after her previous cesarean. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding labor induction in this clinical scenario?

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