A 28-year-old man presents with sudden-onset hematuria, hypertension, and mild renal dysfunction 10 days after a sore throat. Serum complement C3 is low, and anti-GBM antibody is negative. Which single feature best distinguishes post-infectious glomerulonephritis (PIGN) from IgA nephropathy in this clinical context?

See the options, answer & explanation

Sign in free to reveal the answer choices, the correct answer, the detailed explanation, and AI-powered insights for this question.