A 32-year-old male presents to the ED after an inversion ankle injury during a football match. AP mortise view X-ray is obtained. The structure marked **D** (mortise joint space) shows widening of the medial clear space to 6 mm, which is greater than the tibiotalar superior clear space of 3 mm. The ankle mortise appears asymmetric. No obvious fibular fracture is visible on the ankle series. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?