A 28-year-old man presents with polyuria and polydipsia. Serum sodium is 148 mEq/L and urine osmolality is 180 mOsm/kg despite elevated serum osmolality. Sagittal T1 MRI of the sella is performed. The structure marked B (posterior pituitary) shows ABSENCE of the normal hyperintense signal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

See the options, answer & explanation

Sign in free to reveal the answer choices, the correct answer, the detailed explanation, and AI-powered insights for this question.

Daily MCQs, study tips, and topper strategies on Telegram.