A 32-year-old man from Delhi presents with a 3-day history of fever, productive cough, and pleuritic chest pain. Chest X-ray shows a right lower lobe infiltrate with a small pleural effusion. Blood culture and sputum culture both grow methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The patient has no prior hospitalisation and denies intravenous drug use. What is the most appropriate next step in management?