A 28-year-old woman from Mumbai presents with severe dysmenorrhea that has progressively worsened over the past 3 years. She reports that menstrual pain now begins 5–7 days before her period, peaks during menstruation, and may persist for 1–2 days after bleeding stops. She describes the pain as deep, aching, and diffuse across the lower abdomen and pelvis. She also reports dyspareunia (pain during intercourse), chronic pelvic pain between periods, and has been unable to conceive despite 2 years of unprotected intercourse. On pelvic examination, the uterus is slightly enlarged, tender, and fixed. Transvaginal ultrasound shows a heterogeneous endometrial echotexture with poor definition of the endometrial–myometrial interface. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 22-year-old unmarried woman from Delhi presents with severe lower abdominal cramping pain that begins 1 day before her menstrual flow and lasts 2–3 days into menstruation. The pain is colicky in nature, radiates to the lower back and inner thighs, and is accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and occasional diarrhoea. She reports that the pain significantly interferes with her daily activities and school attendance. On general examination, she appears anxious and in distress during the interview. Abdominal and pelvic examination reveal no masses, tenderness, or abnormality. Transvaginal ultrasound is normal. She has never been pregnant and has no history of pelvic infection or endometriosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Which of the following prostaglandins is primarily responsible for the pathophysiology of primary dysmenorrhea?
Which of the following mechanisms explains why NSAIDs are effective in treating primary dysmenorrhea?
A 22-year-old unmarried woman from Delhi presents with severe cramping pain in the lower abdomen and pelvis that begins 12 hours before menstruation and lasts 48–72 hours. She reports the pain is 8/10 in severity, radiates to her lower back and thighs, and is accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. She denies any vaginal discharge, fever, or irregular cycles. Menarche was at age 13, and cycles are regular (28 days, 5 days duration). On examination, the abdomen is soft with mild suprapubic tenderness; pelvic examination is normal with no masses, nodules, or tenderness. Transvaginal ultrasound is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
+ 3 more questions available after sign-up
Ready to test yourself?
Test your OBG knowledge with AI-powered MCQs and detailed explanations — no signup required to try.
Sign up free and practice all 8 Dysmenorrhea MCQs with AI-powered explanations tailored to your performance.
Create Free Account