4 MCQs in Pathology for NEET PG
A 38-year-old woman presents to the endocrinology clinic with a 6-month history of amenorrhea, galactorrhea, and decreased libido. On examination, visual fields are intact and fundoscopy is normal. Serum prolactin is 850 mIU/L (normal <25 mIU/L), and MRI pituitary shows a 8 mm lesion in the anterior pituitary with no suprasellar extension. Other pituitary hormones are normal. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 52-year-old man from Delhi presents with progressive headaches, bitemporal hemianopsia, and erectile dysfunction for 8 months. On examination, visual acuity is reduced and visual fields show classic bitemporal hemianopsia. Serum testosterone is 2.1 ng/mL (normal 2.5–8 ng/mL), LH is 3.2 mIU/mL (normal 1.7–8.6 mIU/mL), FSH is 2.8 mIU/mL (normal 1.5–12 mIU/mL), and prolactin is 18 mIU/L (normal <25 mIU/L). MRI pituitary shows a 2.8 cm sellar mass with suprasellar extension compressing the optic chiasm. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Which of the following pituitary adenomas is most commonly associated with MEN-1 syndrome?
Which histological staining pattern is characteristic of somatotroph adenomas (growth hormone-secreting pituitary adenomas)?
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