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    SubjectsDermatologyAndrogenetic Alopecia
    ClinicalDermatology

    Androgenetic Alopecia

    1 MCQs in Dermatology for NEET PG

    1 Medium
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    Sample Questions

    medium

    A 45-year-old man presents with progressive hair loss over the past 8 years. Clinical examination reveals bitemporal recession with vertex thinning and terminal hair miniaturisation as shown by the structure marked **A** in the diagram. Trichoscopy shows >20% hair shaft diameter diversity and yellow dots. Which of the following best explains the pathophysiological basis of the hair loss pattern observed in this patient?

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