1 MCQs in Dermatology for NEET PG
A 62-year-old obese female with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes (HbA1c 9.2%) and recent amoxicillin-clavulanate use presents with a 3-week history of painful, pruritic inframammary rash. On examination, she has beefy red erythema in both inframammary folds with a macerated white pseudomembrane at the fold apex. The structure marked **B** in the diagram—satellite pustules and papules at the periphery of the main erythematous patches—is a characteristic feature that distinguishes this condition from other causes of intertrigo. Which of the following best describes the clinical significance of this finding?
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